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This is the official message:
70 multiple-choice questions (must achieve score of 70 percent correct to pass).
110 minutes to complete exam.
Use exam ID A00-250; required when registering with Pearson VUE.
This exam is based on the functionality available in SAS 9.4 Maintenance 3.
https://www.sas.com/en_us/certification/credentials/administration/platform-administrator.html
Latest pass4itsure SAS A00-250 Sample Questions(1-15):
QUESTION 1
Select the method for updating table metadata that provides for the most control over updating features
and can be run in batch.
A. Update Metadata option in Data Library Manager in SAS Management Console.
B. Update Library Metadata task in SAS Enterprise Guide.
C. Update Metadata option in SAS Data Integration Studio.
D. METALIB procedure using SAS code.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which statement is FALSE?
Updating table metadata enables you to:
A. add table metadata for tables that exist in the physical library but have no metadata in the repository.
B. update table definitions to match corresponding physical tables.
C. update table security settings at the metadata and operating system level.
D. delete metadata for table definitions that exist in the metadata repository but do not have a
corresponding table in the physical library.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A client wants to have their system set up so that stored processes can access libraries without having to
manage library assignments in the stored process code.
How should the libraries be assigned?
A. by default
B. by client application
C. by pre-assignment
D. by user access
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
The METALIB procedure enables you to update table metadata.
Which method does NOT provide access to the METALIB procedure?
A. SAS Management Console’s update metadata feature
B. SAS Enterprise Guide Explorer’s library management feature
C. SAS Data Integration Studio’s update table metadata feature
D. custom code using PROC METALIB.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A host is using an LDAP provider as a back-end authentication mechanism. For this setup, how does the
SAS server view the authentication?
A. integrated authentication
B. back-end authentication
C. internal authentication
D. host authentication
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A platform administrator needs to delete metadata for table definitions with the following characteristics:
– the table definitions exist in the metadata repository
– the table definitions do not have a corresponding table in the physical library
After performing impact analysis, what action should the platform administrator take?
A. delete repository
B. delete physical library
C. delete the table’s metadata folder
D. update table metadata
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Given the following applications:
– SAS Add-in for Microsoft Office
– SAS Enterprise Guide By default,
How do these applications assign libraries?
A. by using the SAS/ACCESS interface
B. by using the metadata LIBNAME engine
C. by using the BASE SAS engine
D. by using the server autoexec file
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A customer’s environment has a standard workspace server instantiated by the object spawner.
What authentication is required to support this configuration?
A. back-end authentication
B. integrated authentication
C. host authentication
D. internal authentication
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which statement is an advantage of pre-assigned libraries?
A. Libraries are available in stored processes with no additional steps.
B. Metadata security is always applied to pre-assigned libraries.
C. User-written formats are only available to pre-assigned libraries.
D. Maintenance is reduced for the platform administrator.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which statement is a disadvantage of pre-assigned libraries?
A. The server does not become available to the user until all pre-assigned libraries have been assigned.
B. Pre-assigned libraries must be identical across all SAS client applications.
C. Pre-assigned libraries must be assigned using the autoexec file.
D. The administrator cannot control which engine is used to access data in a pre-assigned library.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Given the following authorization setup:
– Mary is a direct member of DeptA and DeptB
– Library Sales2 has an ACT denial for DeptA.
– Library Sales2 has an explicit grant for DeptB.
Which statement is true?
A. Mary can see Library Sales2.
B. Mary cannot see Library Sales2.
C. Mary can see Library Sales2 for data associated withDeptB only.
D. Mary can see Library Sales2 for data flagged as PUBLIC only.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In order of precedence from highest to lowest, how are permissions on a metadata item evaluated?
A. Directly applied and ACT applied, Inherited from parent, Inherited from default ACT
B. ACT applied, Directly applied, Inherited from parent, Inherited from default ACT
C. Inherited from parent, Inherited from default ACT, ACT applied, Directly applied
D. Directly applied, Inherited from parent, ACT applied, Inherited from default ACT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The WriteMemberMetadata (WWM) permission is only found on which type of items?
A. Data libraries
B. Folders
C. Information Maps
D. Data sets
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which statement regarding precedence principles for authorization is FALSE?
A. Settings on an item have priority over settings on the item’s parent.
B. If identity precedence and the type of setting do not resolve a conflict, the outcome is a denial.
C. Explicit settings have priority over ACT settings.
D. A direct member of multiple groups cannot have conflicting settings.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
A platform administrator needs to register OLAP cubes.
What permission levels are required for this task?
A. CM for the target folder andWMMfor the OLAP schema.
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