http://www.adtest2.org Pass Microsoft, Cisco, CompTIA, HP, IBM, Oracle exams with Adtest2. Download VCE Practice Questions Answers. Latest updated materials, Daily Updates Thu, 27 Apr 2017 06:56:22 +0000 en-US hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=4.4.9 2017 New Updated Cisco 300-135 Dumps|TSHOOT 300-135 Dumps Vimeo Online CCNP Routing and Switching http://www.adtest2.org/2017-new-updated-cisco-300-135-dumps.html http://www.adtest2.org/2017-new-updated-cisco-300-135-dumps.html#respond Thu, 27 Apr 2017 06:53:09 +0000 http://www.adtest2.org/?p=258 Continue reading →]]> Dare to pursue, we will have a good future. Do you want to be successful people? Do you want to be IT talent? Do you want to pass Cisco 300-135 dumps certification? Pass4itsure will provide you with high quality dumps. It includes real questions and answers, which is useful to the candidates. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps is ordered, finished, and to the point. Only Pass4itsure can perfect to show its high quality, however, not every website has high quality exam dumps. Than cardiac operations a rush to purchase our Cisco 300-135 dumps Oh! The successful rate is 100%.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Apr 21, 2017
Q&As: 82
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html

A 300-135 dumps test-preparation routine proven to help you pass the exam!

  • Do I Know This Already? quizzes, which allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section
  • Chapter-ending exercises, which help you drill on key concepts you must know thoroughly
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♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-135 Dumps Q&As♥♥

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1 Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug
output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two
routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

300-135 dumps QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transportCorrect Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

 

QUESTION 7
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By looking at the configuration for SW2, we see that it is missing VLAN 200, and the “switchport access vlan 200” command is missing under interface eth 0/0:
300-135 dumps

 

 

 

QUESTION 8

A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
300-135 dumps
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role. The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.

300-135 dumps

Q: What roadblocks did you come across when creating this training and how did you overcome them?
The mindset that it is “impossible to teach someone troubleshooting.” It can be difficult to do this in a prescribed setting. However, going out of the 300-135 dumps box (see answer to out-of-the-box question earlier) allows us to DELIVER troubleshooting concepts AND the experience to students in CBTN-style!

Q: What’s the ONE thing you hope learners take away from this training?
Far more than the concepts of troubleshooting… the EXPERIENCE of troubleshooting.

Start watching this 300-135 dumps vimeo now in http://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html

 

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Hottest Cisco 300-206 Exam CCNP Security with Downloadable PDF File for Guaranteed Success http://www.adtest2.org/hottest-cisco-300-206-exam.html http://www.adtest2.org/hottest-cisco-300-206-exam.html#respond Tue, 28 Mar 2017 06:48:25 +0000 http://www.adtest2.org/?p=248 Continue reading →]]> Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Mar 24, 2017
Q&As: 222
Exam Information:http://www.passitexams.com/300-206.html

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300-206 exam

Passitexams Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-206 Exam Q&As 

 

 

QUESTION 44
When a Cisco ASA is configured in transparent mode, how can ARP traffic be controlled?
A. By enabling ARP inspection; however, it cannot be controlled by an ACL
B. By enabling ARP inspection or by configuring ACLs
C. By configuring ACLs; however, ARP inspection is not supported
D. By configuring NAT and ARP inspection
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

300-206 exam QUESTION 45
What are two primary purposes of Layer 2 detection in Cisco IPS networks? (Choose two.)
A. identifying Layer 2 ARP attacks
B. detecting spoofed MAC addresses and tracking 802.1X actions and data communication after a successful client association
C. detecting and preventing MAC address spoofing in switched environments
D. mitigating man-in-the-middle attacks
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 46
campus network in a switch block design requires redundant distribution switches, load sharing across uplinks, a loop-free topology, and only one gateway IP address per VLAN. Which switching technology meets all of the requirements?
A. VSS
B. EtherChannel
C. HSRP
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: A

 

300-206 exam  QUESTION 47
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. multicast routing uses RPF.
B. Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination
C. In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D. multicast routing is connectionless.
E. When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
Answer: A,C

 

NO.48 Port security supports which type of port?
A. nonnegotiating trunk port
B. DTP-enabled trunk port
C. EtherChannel port-channel port
D. SPAN destination port
Answer: A

 

300-206 exam  NO.49 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the configuration, why are routers R1 and R2 not exchanging OSPF routes?
A. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
B. There is no backbone area configured.
C. The OSPF process numbers are different.
D. The router IDs are different.
Answer: B

 

NO.50 The Cisco ASA must support dynamic routing and terminating VPN traffic. Which three Cisco ASA options will not support these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. active/standby failover mode
B. no NAT-control
C. transparent mode
D. active/active failover mode
E. multiple context mode
F. routed mode
Answer: C,D,E

300-206 exam  NO.51  Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within
a virtual cloud environment?
A. Cisco VSG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. ESVA
D. WSVA
Answer: B

 
NO.52  Which two features are supported when configuring clustering of multiple Cisco ASA
appliances? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic routing
B. NAT
C. SSL remote access VPN
D. IPSec remote access VPN
Answer: A,B

 

300-206 exam  NO.53  What is the result of the default ip ssh server authenticate user command?
A. It enables the keyboard authentication method only.
B. It enables the password authentication method only.
C. It enables the public key, keyboard, and password authentication methods.
D. It enables the public key authentication method only.
Answer: C

300-206 exam

The Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security (SENSS) 300-206 exam tests the knowledge of a network security engineer to configure and implement security on Cisco network perimeter edge devices such as a Cisco switch, Cisco router, and Cisco ASA firewall.

This 90-minute exam consists of 65-75 questions and focuses on the technologies used to strengthen security of a network perimeter such as Network Address Translation (NAT), ASA policy and application inspect, and a zone-based firewall on Cisco routers. Candidates can prepare for this 300-206 exam by taking the Cisco Edge Network Security (SENSS) course.

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2017 Self-study Guide for Microsoft 70-480 Vce – Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript http://www.adtest2.org/self-study-guide-for-microsoft-70-480-vce.html http://www.adtest2.org/self-study-guide-for-microsoft-70-480-vce.html#respond Fri, 10 Mar 2017 07:54:22 +0000 http://www.adtest2.org/?p=235 Continue reading →]]> The certification will tell you and confirms the capabilities of individuals in different technological advancement and control techniques. But to obtain and efficiently pass the Microsoft 70-480 vce certification exams is not an effortless job because it needs a lot of effort as well as proper planning components which we have.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Updated on: Feb 27, 2017
Published: August 20, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:Developers
Technology: Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSD
Exam Information: http://www.flydumps.com/70-480.html

70-480  vce

Step 1. Finding Out What Goes Into the Exam

We are professionals in providing the best certification exam planning components to the customers across the entire globe. Those who live at different locations around the globe are working on various Microsoft 70-480 exam certifications to get complete profession potential and also for enhancing their profession. you can get a pretty nice idea of what goes into the exam from the exam certification page and by reading the Exam Reference Book. In summary:

  • Implement and manipulate document structures and objects (24%)
  • Implement program flow (25%)
  • Access and secure data (26%)
  • Use CSS3 in applications (25%)

which 70-480 dumps basically means:

  • HTML, CSS3, JavaScript (ES5)
  • HTML5 web apis: DOM, web workers, web sockets, geolocation, app cache, local storage, session storage, canvas and Ajax
  • Basic CSS Layout, Flexbox, Grid, CSS Regions
  • Transitions, Transforms and Animations
  • jQuery

In relation to this, we are providing awesome products and services to the customers with the help of which they can productively and proficiently pass all kinds of certification 70-480 exam just in the first attempt.

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Topic 1, Volume A
Question No : 1 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are validating user input by using JavaScript and regular expressions.
A group of predefined regular expressions will validate two input fields:
An email address in a function named validateEmail (for example,
firstname@contoso.com)
A nine-digit number that allows optional hyphens after the second and fifth
character in a function named validateSSN(for example, 555555555 or 555-55-
5555)
You need to use the correct expression to validate the input.
Which expression should you insert into each function? (To answer, drag the appropriate
regular expression statement to the correct location. Each regular expression statement
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.)

70-480 vce
Answer:
70-480 vce
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?

70-480 vce
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a
company’s website. The page collects information about the customer.
If a customer enters a value before submitting the form, it must be a valid email address.
You need to ensure that the data validation requirement is met.
What should you use?

A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer: D
Reference:

Question No : 4 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1) You are developing a form that captures a user’s email address by using HTML5 and
jQuery.
The form must capture the email address and return it as a query string parameter. The
query string parameter must display the @ symbol that is used in the email address.
You need to implement this functionality.
How should you develop the form? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the
correct target or targets in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more
than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.)
70-480 vce

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that consumes a Windows Communication Foundation
(WCF) service.
The application interacts with the service by using the following code. (Line numbers are
included for reference only.)
70-480  vce
You need to authenticate to the WCF service.
What should you do?
A. At line 11, add the following lines of code.
,username: yourusername
,password: yourpassword
B. At line 11, add the following line of code.
,credentials: prompt
C. At line 06, replace the code with the following line of code.
url: “http://contoso.com/Service.svc/GetCountry?
Username=username&password=psssword”,
D. At line 11, add the following line of code. The username and password will be stored in
an XML file.
,credentials: credentials.xml
Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web
server. The page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that
displays information about the status of the upload.
The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-480 vce
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS
element on the page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar.
Which line of code should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer: D
Reference:

Skills Measured

70-480  vce

 

70-480 exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Of course, if you don’t mind reading the material, then these Microsoft Exam Prep books will cover the material necessary for the exam, but if you are not already familiar with the material, it will require lots of hands-on practice

Some general links first:http://www.pass4cert.net/cisco-new-ccna-200-125-pdf.html

More questions are available at http://200-125-vce.myfreesites.net/200-125-vce/free-cisco-200-125-vce

Article Link:

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GIAC GISP Study Guide, Most Important GIAC GISP Exam Materials With Accurate Answers http://www.adtest2.org/giac-gisp-study-guide.html http://www.adtest2.org/giac-gisp-study-guide.html#respond Tue, 27 Sep 2016 06:14:12 +0000 http://www.adtest2.org/?p=223 Continue reading →]]> http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-470.html

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QUESTION NO: 146
Which of the following statements about Network Address Translation (NAT) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It allows the computers in a private network to share a global, ISP assigned address to connect to the Internet.
B. It reduces the need for globally unique IP addresses.
C. It allows external network clients access to internal services.

D. It provides added security by using Internet access to deny or permit certain traffic from the Bastion Host.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 147
Which of the following types of halon is found in portable extinguishers and is stored as a liquid?
A. Halon 11
B. Halon 1301
C. Halon 1211
D. Halon-f
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 148
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. To ensure the security of files, you encrypt data files using Encrypting File System (EFS). You want to make a backup copy of the files and maintain security settings. You can backup the files either to a network share or a floppy disk. What will you do to accomplish this?
A. Copy the files to a network share on a FAT32 volume.
B. Copy the files to a network share on an NTFS volume.
C. Place the files in an encrypted folder. Then, copy the folder to a floppy disk.
D. Copy the files to a floppy disk that has been formatted using Windows 2000 Professional.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 149
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Your computer has the Windows 2000 Server operating system. You want to harden the security of the server. Which of the following changes are required to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Rename the Administrator account.

B. Remove the Administrator account.
C. Disable the Guest account.
D. Enable the Guest account.
Answer: A,C
Topic 2, Volume B

QUESTION NO: 150
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using the TFN and Trin00 tools to test the security of the We-aresecure server, so that he can check whether the server is vulnerable or not. Using these tools, which of the following attacks can John perform to test the security of the We-are-secure server?
A. Reply attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. DDoS attack
D. Brute force attack
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 151
Which of the following statements about IEEE 802.1X standard are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It uses the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) that works on Ethernet, Token Ring, or wireless LANs to exchange messages for the authentication process.
B. It uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) that works on Ethernet, Token Ring, or wireless LANs to exchange messages for the authentication process.
C. It provides an authentication framework for wireless LANs.
D. It provides the highest level of VPN security.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 152

Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Separation of duties
C. Chain of custody
D. Account lockout policy
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 153
Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
SHA-1 produces a
-bit message digest.
A. 160
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 154
Which of the following statements about asymmetric encryption are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Asymmetric encryption uses a public key and a private key pair for data encryption.
B. Asymmetric encryption is faster as compared to symmetric encryption.
C. In asymmetric encryption, the public key is distributed and the private key is available only to the recipient of the message.
D. In asymmetric encryption, only one key is needed to encrypt and decrypt data.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 155
Which of the following refers to a computer that must be secure because it is accessible from the Internet and is vulnerable to attacks?

A. LMHOSTS
B. Bastion host
C. Firewall
D. Gateway
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 156
What are the benefits of using a proxy server on a network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It enhances network security.
B. It cuts down dial-up charges.
C. It is used for automated assignment of IP addresses to a TCP/IP client in the domain.
D. It uses a single registered IP address for multiple connections to the Internet.
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 157
Which of the following are the goals of the cryptographic systems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 158
Which of the following services is provided by the message authentication code (MAC) ?
A. Data recovery
B. Integrity C. Fault tolerance

D. Key recovery
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 159
Which of the following statements best describes VeriSign?
A. It is a signature verification utility.
B. It is a certification authority.
C. It is an encryption technology.
D. It is an authentication server.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 160
Which of the following protocols is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses?
A. ARP
B. PPP
C. ICMP
D. HTTP
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 161
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the preattack phase successfully:
.
Information gathering

.
Determination of network range

.
Identification of active systems

.
Location of open ports and applications

Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
D. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 162
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Employees in remote locations connect to the company’s network using Remote Access Service (RAS). Which of the following will you use to protect the network against unauthorized access?
A. Bridge
B. Antivirus software
C. Gateway
D. Firewall

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 163
Which of the following statements about a perimeter network are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It has a connection to the Internet through an external firewall and a connection to an internal network through an interior firewall.
B. It has a connection to a private network through an external firewall and a connection to an internal network through an interior firewall.
C. It is also known as a demilitarized zone or DMZ.
D. It prevents access to the internal corporate network for outside users.
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 164

Which of the following enables an inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his invention?
A. Spam
B. Artistic license
C. Patent
D. Phishing
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 165
You are using a Windows-based sniffer named ASniffer to record the data traffic of a network. You have extracted the following IP Header information of a randomly chosen packet from the sniffer’s log:
45 00 00 28 00 00 40 00 29 06 43 CB D2 D3 82 5A 3B 5E AA 72
Which of the following TTL decimal values and protocols are being carried by the IP Header of this packet?
A. 16, ICMP
B. 41, TCP
C. 16, UDP
D. 41, UDP
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 126
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. The company has recently provided laptops to its sales team members. You have configured access points in the network to enable a wireless network. The company’s security policy states that all users using laptops must use smart cards for authentication. Which of the following authentication techniques will you use to implement the security policy of the company?
A. IEEE 802.1X using EAP-TLS
B. Pre-shared key
C. IEEE 802.1X using PEAP-MS-CHAP
D. Open system
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 127
In which of the following scanning techniques does a scanner connect to an FTP server and request that server to start data transfer to the third system?
A. Xmas Tree scanning
B. TCP SYN scanning
C. Bounce attack scanning

D. TCP FIN scanning
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 128
Which of the following protocols is used to query and modify information stored within the directory services?
A. PPTP
B. ARP
C. PAP
D. LDAP
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following does Certification Authority (CA) provide in an e-commerce system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Credit
B. Trust
C. Transparency
D. Identification
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 130
In which of the following attacks does an attacker send a spoofed TCP SYN packet in which the target’s IP address is filled in both the source and destination fields?
A. Jolt DoS attack
B. Ping of death attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 131
Which of the following terms is used for securing an operating system from an attack?
A. System hacking
B. System hardening
C. System mirroring
D. System indexing
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 132
Which of the following access control models uses a role based method to determine access rights and permission?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Roaming access control
C. Nondiscretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133
Which of the following ports is the default port for Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) ?
A. UDP port 1701
B. UDP port 161
C. TCP port 443
D. TCP port 110
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following is a process of monitoring data packets that travel across a network?
A. Packet sniffing
B. Authentication
C. Network binding
D. Encryption
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following statements about service pack are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a medium by which product updates are distributed.
B. It is a term used for securing an operating system.
C. It is a term generally related to security problems in a software.
D. It is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product.

Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 136
Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Primary Rate Interface (PRI) of an ISDN connection contains
B channels and D channel.
A. 23,1
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 137
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He writes the following snort rule:

This rule can help him protect the We-are-secure server from the .
A. Chernobyl virus
B. I LOVE YOU virus
C. Melissa virus
D. Nimda virus
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 138
Which of the following rate systems of Orange book has mandatory protection of the Trusted Computing Base (TCB)?
A. B-rated system
B. A-rated system
C. D-rated system
D. C-Rated system
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 139
Which of the following rated systems of the Orange book has mandatory protection of the TCB?
A. B-rated
B. A-rated
C. D-rated
D. C-rated
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 140
Which of the following standards is used in wireless local area networks (WLANs)?
A. IEEE 802.4
B. IEEE 802.11b

C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?
A. Access control list (ACL)
B. Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C. Security Identifier (SID)
D. Access control entry (ACE)
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 142
Which of the following database types is a collection of tables that are linked by their primary keys?
A. Relational database management system
B. Object-oriented database management system
C. Hierarchical database management system
D. File-oriented database management system
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 143
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company’s network has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. You want to prevent malicious e-mails from entering the network from the non-existing domains. What will you do to accomplish this?
A. Disable DNS recursive queries on the DNS server.
B. Enable DNS recursive queries on the DNS server.
C. Enable DNS reverse lookup on the e-mail server.

D. Disable DNS reverse lookup on the e-mail server.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following is used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a network?
A. Sam Spade
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Cookies
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following standards works at the presentation layer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ASCII
B. MPEG
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Answer: A,B,C,D

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QUESTION NO: 96
Against which of the following does SSH provide protection?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. DoS attack
B. Password sniffing
C. Broadcast storm
D. IP spoofing
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 97

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He recommends a disk encryption tool to encrypt the secret files of the We-are-secure server. He presents a report to the We-are-secure authorities as given below:
Which of the following tools is John recommending for disk encryption on the We-are-secure server?
A. CryptoHeaven
B. Stunnel
C. TrueCrypt
D. Magic Lantern
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following protocols is used to securely connect to a private network by a remote client using the Internet?
A. PAP
B. PPTP
C. UDP
D. IPSec
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following categories of UTP cable has maximum data transfer rate of 155 Mbps?
A. Category 5
B. Category 3
C. Category 7
D. Category 6
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 100

Perfect World Inc., provides its sales managers access to the company’s network from remote locations. The sales managers use laptops to connect to the network. For security purposes, the company’s management wants the sales managers to log on to the network using smart cards over a remote connection. Which of the following authentication protocols should be used to accomplish this?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
B. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
D. Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following rate systems of the Orange book has no security controls?
A. C-rated
B. D-rated
C. A-rated
D. E-rated

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 102
Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Digital Subscriber Line must be installed within a
kilometer radius of the telephone company’s access point.
A. 5.5
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
Which of the following refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system?

A. Piggybacking
B. Hacking
C. Session hijacking
D. Keystroke logging
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 104
Which of the following type of errors occurs when a legitimate user incorrectly denied access to resources by the Biometrics authentication systems?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following are the differences between PPTP and L2TP?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. L2TP does not provide any kind of security.
B. PPTP connections use Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE), whereas L2TP uses Data Encryption Standard (DES).
C. L2TP may be used with IPSec, while PPTP stands alone.
D. PPTP is supported by most industry vendors, while L2TP is a proprietary Microsoft standard.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 106
Which of the following statements about extranet are true?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an area of a company’s Web site, which is only available to selected customers, suppliers, an business partners.
B. It is an area of a company’s Web site, which is available to Internet users.
C. It is an arrangement commonly used for business-to-business relationships.
D. It is an arrangement commonly used for a company’s employees.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 107
Which of the following are the examples of administrative controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Data Backup
B. Auditing
C. Security policy
D. Security awareness training
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 108
Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Sanitization
B. Authentication
C. Spoofing
D. Drive wiping
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109
John works as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. The We-are-secure server is based on Windows Server 2003. One day, while analyzing the network security, he receives an error message that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem. Which of the following steps should John take as a countermeasure to this situation?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. He should upgrade his antivirus program.
B. He should download the latest patches for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site, so that he can repair the kernel.
C. He should observe the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new malicious process is running, he should kill that process.
D. He should restore his Windows settings.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 110
Which of the following Windows RRAS authentication protocols uses completely unencrypted passwords?
A. PAP
B. MS-CHAP
C. CHAP
D. MS-CHAP v2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which of the following statements about DMZ is true?
A. DMZ is a corporate network used as the Internet.
B. DMZ is a firewall that lies in between two corporate networks.
C. DMZ is a network that is not connected to the Internet.
D. DMZ is a network that lies in between a corporate network and the Internet.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112

Which of the following components come under the network layer of the OSI model?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewalls
B. Hub
C. Routers
D. MAC addresses
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 113
Which of the following is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH)?
A. TCP port 22
B. UDP port 161
C. UDP port 138
D. TCP port 443
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trademark
B. Patent
C. Trade secret
D. Copyright
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 115
Which of the following techniques are used to secure wireless networks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. MAC address filtering
B. SSID spoofing
C. IP spoofing
D. Closed network
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following refers to a condition in which a hacker sends a bunch of packets that leave TCP ports half open?
A. Spoofing
B. PING attack
C. SYN attack
D. Hacking
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following is a type of intruder detection that involves logging network events to a file for an administrator to review later?
A. Passive detection
B. Event detection
C. Active detection
D. Packet detection
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118
Which of the following cables provides maximum security against electronic eavesdropping on a network?
A. Fibre optic cable
B. NTP cable

C. STP cable
D. UTP cable
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 119
At which of the following layers Structured Query Language (SQL) works?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Session
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 120
You work as a Network Administrator of a TCP/IP network. You are having DNS resolution problem. Which of the following utilities will you use to diagnose the problem?
A. NSLOOKUP
B. IPCONFIG
C. PING
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following entities is used by Routers and firewalls to determine which packets should be forwarded or dropped?
A. Rainbow table
B. Rootkit
C. Access control list
D. Backdoor

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following are natural environmental threats that an organization faces?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Storms
B. Floods
C. Strikes
D. Accidents
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following encryption algorithms are based on block ciphers?
A. RC4
B. RC5
C. Twofish
D. Rijndael
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian.
B. Determining what level of classification the information requires.
C. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data.
D. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 125
What will be the best strategy to prevent employees on a Local Area Network from performing unauthorized activities?
A. Grant the employees minimum permissions that are needed to perform the required tasks.
B. Limit the number of files that any employee can open at any given time.
C. Grant the employees maximum permissions that are needed to perform the required tasks.
D. Store the resources on a hard disk that has NTFS partitions.
Answer: A

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QUESTION 26
You are working with a healthcare company that is interested in replacing all the backend storage for their PACS system.
In general, how should the solution be presented to the customer?
A. VNX for image cache; Isilon NL-Series nodes for image archive
B. Isilon A-Series nodes for image cache; Isilon NL-Series nodes for image archive
C. Isilon NL-Series nodes for image cache and image archive
D. VNX for image cache and image archive

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
You meet with the IT Director of a large single site campus. The IT department has recently taken over
Physical Security from the facilities department and plans a complete overhaul of the surveillance solution.
They are looking to you as a storage architecture expert to provide the correct amount of storage needed.
The IT Director asks you what items they need to provide in order to size this solution.
What data do you require from the customer?

A. Resolution CODEC Frames Per Second (fps) Number of Devices Retention Time
B. Pixel Count CODEC Color Sampling Frames Per Second (fps) Number of Devices Retention Time
C. Pixel Count CODEC Color Sampling Frames Per Second (fps) Number of Devices Video Management System Evidence Collection Period
D. Bit rate per camera Camera Manufacturer
Video Management System
Retention Time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
A four-node Isilon cluster is being used in a Hadoop workflow with a parity protection of N+2:1. The HDFS protocol has been enabled and is being used to access data.
How many additional copies of data are written into the Isilon cluster using HDFS?
A. None
B. One
C. Three
D. Two

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Your customer has a new business unit. They are gathering web log files to be analyzed. They are using Hadoop to do the analysis of the logs. The IT department is centrally storing the log files on a 5-node Isilon cluster. They have enabled the Hadoop cluster to access the files directly on the Isilon storage. The nodes are X400’s with two SSD drives in each node and 96GB of RAM.
How many DataNodes does the Isilon cluster have?
A. Five
B. One
C. Three
D. Two

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
A media and entertainment company has asked for help in creating a new Video On Demand (VOD) storage system. The storage would be delivered to 5000 subscribers simultaneously. They would like to store 5000 hours of full length, High Definition (HD) movies.
What would be the best price-to-performance nodes for this solution?
A. X400 with no SSD and 96GB RAM
B. X200 with no SSD and 48GB RAM
C. Mixed X400 48GB RAM and NL400 24GB
D. X400 with 1.6TB SSD and 24GB RAM

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Your customer has observed a degradation in response time while browsing for media files within the Production Media folder of the Isilon cluster. That directory now contains over five million files. It was confirmed that there are no network or edit station related causes. What changes to the Isilon cluster will best accelerate the browsing performance?
A. Add Solid State Drives (SSDs) to the nodes
B. Add A-Series Performance Accelerator nodes
C. Upgrade node access to 10 Gbps
D. Upgrade RAM on the nodes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
While validating the value (VTV) with a large educational customer, they have decided they would like to add a Disaster Recovery (DR) site to their existing Isilon environment. The existing cluster contains six X-Series nodes. They plan to have all workflows replicated to the DR site and both clusters will have identical shares, exports, and user authentication. The customer would like to test DR failover every six months by running their production environment from the DR site.
What would you recommend for the DR solution?
A. SyncIQ and identical cluster at the DR site
B. SmartConnect and NL-Series nodes at the primary site
C. SyncIQ and NL-Series nodes at the DR site
D. Equal number of S-Series nodes at the primary site

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
A hospital is considering using Isilon to store their archived medical images and Genomic Sequencing data. They currently have 56 TB of PACS images and 24 TB of genomic data, and expect to double their capacity requirements this year. They will replicate to a DR cluster, and plan to use N+2 protection. The production workload needs to be run at either site.
Which minimum cluster configuration, at each site, including software, would meet this customer’s environment?
A. Five X400 (2 TB drives) nodes with SyncIQ.
B. Four NL400 (3 TB drives) nodes with SyncIQ.
C. Seven X200 (3 TB drives) nodes with SyncIQ and SnapshotIQ
D. Five X400 (2 TB drives) nodes with SnapshotIQ.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
A hospital is considering using Isilon to store their long-term archive data for their GE PACS application. They currently have two million 17 MB studies. They expect capacity requirements to be 50% compounded growth per year. They plan to use N+2:1 protection, and would like this sized for three years of growth.
Which minimum cluster configuration would meet this customer’s environment?
A. Five NL400 (1 TB drive) nodes
B. Four NL400 (2 TB drive) nodes
C. Five X200 (3 TB drive) nodes
D. Three X400 (3 TB drive) nodes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
Which protocols are supported by Isilon OneFS for file access?
A. NFS, HDFS, HTTP, SMB
B. SMB, HTTP, SMTP, HDFS
C. HDFS, NFS, iSCSI, SNMP

D. FTP, NFS, SMB, FC
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Which Isilon OneFS protection level allows you to withstand two drive failures but no more than one complete node failure?
A. N+1
B. N+2
C. N+2:1

D. N+3:1
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage. Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Which Isilon feature provides the ability to build a cluster using different node types and tiers to meet a customer’s business objectives?
A. SmartPools
B. SmartQuota
C. SmartConnect
D. SnapshotIQ

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
At which level can retention periods be applied with Isilon SmartLock?
A. Directory
B. Node
C. File system
D. Cluster

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40
A customer is trying to get Isilon SyncIQ to run on the two clusters they just purchased. However, they are experiencing some problems. They have asked you to explain how the SyncIQ licensing works.
What information can be provided to the customer?
A. SyncIQ license is required on both the source and target clusters
B. SyncIQ license is required on the source but not on the target cluster
C. SyncIQ license is required on target but not on the source cluster
D. SyncIQ license is included in the OneFS license; no additional license is needed Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41

Where are file system operations initiated on an Isilon node?
A. L1
B. NVRAM
C. L2
D. Disk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
For concurrent I/O, how do SmartCache and Endurant Cache differ?
A. Endurant Cache sends an acknowledgement to the client immediately after mirroring writes in NVRAM
B. Endurant Cache waits for acknowledgement from all nodes before copying to L2 cache
C. SmartCache immediately commits the write to NVRAM on the local node and one peer node
D. SmartCache uses sub-file, granular locking whereas Endurant Cache locks the entire file

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Where is caching for disk blocks staged on an Isilon node?
A. L2
B. CPU
C. L1
D. RAID
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
2.a.3-R6-D. In an Isilon cluster, what is the correct sequence of operations for a client write when Forward Error Correction (FEC) is used for data protection ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45
What is the relative latency of a cache hit to L1 cache compared to a hit to L2 cache in an Isilon cluster?
A. 2x
B. 5x
C. 10x
D. 25x
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Where does SmartCache stage its write cache?
A. SSD
B. DISK
C. NVRAM
D. DRAM
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which type of data is stored in Endurant Cache of an Isilon node?
A. Write
B. Volume
C. Read
D. Protection

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
What is the overhead impact on the physical capacity when configuring data protection at +2:1 on a 6-node Isilon cluster?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/6
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
A customer has 10 nodes in a cluster using N+2 protection. What is the minimum number of nodes required to be online and in communication with one another to satisfy quorum?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6

D. 7
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
In an Isilon cluster for N+2 protection, what is the minimum number of nodes?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6

D. 9
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
A customer has a 7-node Isilon cluster configured with N+2:1 protection. How many nodes can be offline with the data accessible and fully writeable?
A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 0; all nodes must be online
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 52
What is the minimum number of connected and available nodes required to maintain quorum in a 25-node Isilon cluster?
A. 10
B. 12

C. 13
D. 17
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
An Isilon customer experienced a node failure. The failure requires that the affected node be permanently removed from the cluster. What will occur in the cluster upon failure of the node?
A. OneFS will assume it is a temporary failure and the data will not be protected at the appropriate levels.
B. Cluster will detect the node failure and automatically begin the SmartFail process.
C. FlexProtect will be activated and data will be protected at the appropriate levels.
D. Nothing. When data protection levels are set appropriately, OneFS will always protect data without manual interaction.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
A customer experiences a system failure on an Isilon storage node.However, the disk drives in the node are not affected.
What is the preferred method for restoring cluster integrity?
A. Engage EMC support to perform a Disk Tango process to move drives, journal, and boot volumes to a replacement chassis
B. Allow OneFS to proceed with its automatic SmartFail process to re-protect the failed node
C. Migrate the disks from the failed node into spare drive bays on other nodes
D. Initiate a manual SmartFail process on the node as it is not started automatically

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
A customer plans to deploy N+2:1 protection on a 5-node Isilon cluster. How much capacity will be used to store a 320 KiB file?
A. 320 KiB
B. 448 KiB
C. 576 KiB
D. 640 KiB

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
A customer plans to deploy N+2:1 protection on a 5-node Isilon cluster. How much capacity will be used to store a 1024 KiB file?
A. 1024 KiB
B. 1280 KiB
C. 1792 KiB
D. 1920 KiB

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
An Isilon customer’s administrator created the nested directory structure, shown in the exhibit, using
SmartQuotas. However, a user needs to write an additional 650 GB of data to “/ifs/data/acct/recv”.
Which steps will enable the user to complete this task?
A. Directory1 QuotA. Increase to 1400 GB User QuotA.Increase to 1000 GB on Subdirectory2
B. User QuotA. Decrease to 650 GB on Subdirectory2 Directory1 QuotA.Decrease to 1650 GB
C. User QuotA. Decrease to 400 GB on Subdirectory1 Directory1 QuotA.Increase to 1650 GB
D. Directory1 QuotA. Increase to 1350 GB User QuotA.Decrease to 1000 GB on Subdirectory1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
While configuring Isilon SmartConnect, a customer determined that their workload primarily consists of long-lived NFS and SMB connections. Which load-balancing policy will provide the most efficient client distribution?
A. Random Selection
B. CPU Utilization
C. Network Throughput
D. Connection Count

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member’s IP address and an SRV record to provide resolution services C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each SmartConnect zone

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
A customer currently has 10 HPC nodes. They plan to purchase a 5-node Isilon X400 cluster for an HPC application running on Linux. They will persistent mount the Isilon cluster through NFSv3.
Which recommended configuration addresses the customer’s requirements for high availability and throughput?
A. SmartConnect Advanced with Round Robin connection balancing and dynamic addressing
B. SmartConnect Basic with Round Robin connection balancing and dynamic addressing
C. SmartConnect Advanced with Network Throughput connection balancing and dynamic addressing
D. SmartConnect Advanced with Round Robin connection balancing and static addressing

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
A customer is configuring Isilon SmartConnect. They have determined that their workload primarily consists of short-lived connections, such as HTTP and FTP.
Which load-balancing policy provides the most efficient client distribution?
A. CPU Utilization
B. Round Robin
C. Connection Count
D. Random Selection

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
If Dynamic IP Address Allocation is being configured in Isilon SmartConnect, which policy setting needs to be determined?
A. Rebalance
B. Load Balancing
C. Static
D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
An Isilon cluster component has the following characteristics: Spans 3 – 40 nodes Logical grouping of drives Automatically assigned Intelligently distributes disks to manage performance
Which cluster component is described?
A. Disk pool
B. Node pool
C. Smart pool
D. SSD pool

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
An Isilon customer has an 8-node cluster of older X-Series nodes. They plan to upgrade the nodes over the next three years in the following stages: Stage 1: Add 2 X-Series nodes to meet performance growth Stage 2: Add 4 NL-Series nodes to meet archive capacity growth Stage 3: Add 10 New X-Series nodes as a hardware refresh Stage 4: Remove older X-Series nodes
At which point will a SmartPool license be required?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
If business objectives such as value and SLAs are considered, which Isilon license feature provides the ability to manage performance and the cost of data in a cluster?
A. SmartPools
B. SmartConnect
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartQuota

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
An Isilon customer wants the ability to provide low latency I/O for their files due to a workflowinvolving small, random reads and writes. Which SSD strategy is most effective for this use case?
A. Data on SSDs
B. Metadata read acceleration
C. Metadata read/write acceleration
D. Avoid SSDs

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
By default, which method is used by Isilon OneFS for SSDs?
A. Metadata read acceleration
B. Metadata read/write acceleration
C. Data on SSDs
D. Avoid SSDs

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Data compression uses what other feature to reduce the amount of capacity a LUN uses?
A. Thin provisioning
B. FAST VP
C. FAST Cache
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
A customer would like to create multiple striped metaLUNs. What EMC best practice do you recommend?
A. Rotate the base LUN of the metaLUNs, so the first components are not in the same RAID group.
B. Change the element size to 64 times the number of existing spindles to ensure proper distribution of I/
O.
C. Align each component at the host or array level before creating the metaLUN.
D. Locate multiple components of the metaLUN in the same RAID group to maximize disk utilization.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

What is this an example of?
A. LUN multipathing
B. Load balancing
C. LUN masking
D. Fabric zoning

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
When the Access Logix database is licensed and enabled, where will it be cached?
A. SP memory
B. Write cache
C. Vault drives
D. Read cache

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
A customer logs in to Unisphere as an administrator and tries to delete a storage group, but is unable to do so. What must the customer do to delete this storage group?
A. Make sure no hosts are connected to the storage group
B. Make sure no LUNs are present in the storage group
C. Delete the storage group from Navisphere Secure CLI
D. Enter Engineering mode to delete the storage group

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
A customer wants to dedicate a VNX to a single host. That host needs to see all LUNs on the storage system.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Enable Access Logix.
B. Register the host with the VNX.
C. Install the Host Agent on the server.
D. Disable Access Logix.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
A customer has requested to have Access Logix disabled on a VNX array. How would you accomplish this?
A. Use Navisphere Secure CLI to run sc_off.
B. Remove the check mark in the Unisphere GUI for storage groups.
C. Remove all hosts and storage from the storage groups.
D. De-register all hosts from the VNX.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
Which LAN configuration is recommended for an iSCSI network on the VNX?
A. Layer 2 (switched)
B. Layer 3 (routed)
C. Layer 2 (routed)
D. Layer 3 (switched)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Which feature does PowerPath iSCSI for Windows support?
A. Failover up to 64 paths
B. Path Management up to 128 paths
C. Failover up to 16 paths
D. Path management up to 32 paths

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
A customer has one host attached to each SP on a VNX. SP A owns LUNs 100 and 101, which run critical applications. The customer notices that SP A has experienced a back-end failure and consequently has lost connectivity to these LUNs. How will ALUA handle this path failure to ensure continued connectivity to LUNs 100 and 101?
A. The lower redirector routes I/O to the SP owning the LUNs.
B. PowerPath immediately trespasses the LUN to the owning SP.
C. The upper redirector routes I/O to the SP owning the LUNs.
D. PowerPath routes traffic to the peer SP and through the CMI.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
A Windows host with PowerPath installed is connected to a VNX storage array with iSCSI. What is the maximum number of paths supported on this host?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
A host in the data center will be connected with iSCSI to a VNX storage array located 110 meters from the server. Which kind of network cable should be used?
A. CAT 3
B. CAT 5
C. CAT 6

D. CAT 5E
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
One of the host’s HBAs has experienced a registered state change notification (RSCN), and was required to log in to the fabric again. However, the application experienced only minimal impact to performance. Why?
A. Single initiator zoning
B. Both HBAs are in the zone
C. SAN B remained unchanged
D. Fabric login has no impact

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
What action should be done to align data to LUN structure on a Windows 2008 raw disk?
A. No action is required.
B. Use the diskpart utility.
C. Use the format utility.
D. Use the diskpar utility.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
You have just allocated new volumes to your Windows 2003 host and were informed that you need to align the disk to prevent performance issues. What tool should you use to align the disks and at what point should you align them?
A. Align the partition with the diskpart utility after creating the partition.
B. Align the disk with the diskpart utility prior to creating a partition.
C. Align the partition using Windows Disk Management prior to creating the partition.
D. There is no need to align the disk as this affects only Windows 2000 hosts.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
A customer is experiencing performance issues after creating SnapView snapshots of existing Windows 2008 data LUNs. What is one possible reason for these performance issues?
A. The LUN was aligned with the array alignment utility.
B. The LUN was aligned with the diskpart utility to 1024 KiB.
C. The LUN was aligned with the diskpart utility to 2048 KiB.
D. The snapshot LUN was not aligned.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
You are carving LUNs on your VNX to attach to your Windows hosts. According to EMC best practice, what is the recommended element size on the LUNs?
A. 64 KiB
B. 128 KiB
C. 256 KiB
D. 32 KiB

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
On a Windows host with Emulex HBAs installed, which tool is used to view target WWPNs?
A. HBAnywhere / ONECOMMAND
B. SANsurfer
C. Device Manager
D. Fabric Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Unified Storage Management in VSI for VMware vSphere has which available features?
A. Provision file and block storage Extend file and block storage Deduplication/compression for block storage VM clones with VMWare View Integration for file storage
B. Provision file and block storage Extend file storage Deduplication/compression for file storage VM clones with VMware View Integration for file storage
C. Provision file and block storage Extend block storage Deduplication/compression for file storage VM clones with VMWare View Integration for file storage
D. Provision file and block storage Extend file and block storage Deduplication/compression for block and file storage VM clones with VMWare View Integration for block storage

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
A VM guest on an ESX host requires direct access to a LUN. Which mechanism enables this?
A. RDM
B. Data store
C. MetaLUN
D. Private LUN
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51
A shared VNX LUN can support a maximum of how many ESX hosts?

A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 128
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
In order to import VMs from an ESX/ESXi server using Unisphere, which action is required?
A. Load an acceptable certificate from the vCenter server or ESXi server.
B. Install Unisphere Host Agent on the VM.
C. Install Unisphere Host Agent on the ESX/ESXi server.
D. Register the VM on the array.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
In order to import VMs from an ESX/ESXi server using Unisphere, which action is required?
A. Set the certificate validation setting to ignore.
B. Install Unisphere Host Agent on the VM.
C. Install Unisphere Host Agent on the ESX/ESXi server.
D. Register the VM on the storage system.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
Which feature of VSI can be used for block storage on a VNX?
A. Extend storage
B. Deduplication/Compression
C. Provision storage
D. VM clones with View

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
A company wants to connect four different IP subnets to a single existing LACP trunk. How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure four different IP addresses on the virtual LACP interface with different names.
B. Destroy the LACP trunk and configure two IP addresses on each physical interface with different names.
C. Destroy the LACP trunk and build an Ethernet channel; then configure four different IP addresses on the virtual Ethernet channel interface with different names.
D. This is not possible because only one IP address can be set on one interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 56
A VNX is configured with a primary and a standby Data Mover. What happens to the file systems exported from the primary Data Mover if the connected network fails?
A. The VNX file systems are unavailable.
B. The VNX file systems remain available with degraded performance.
C. The standby Data Mover takes over operation. After network connection is re-established, operation fails back.
D. The standby Data Mover takes over operation. After network connection is re-established, operation will not fail back.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
A customer wants to improve the network throughput of the NFS-connected ESXi server with jumbo frame support. They configured an FSN on the VNX with default settings. An MTU size of 9000 was set on the ESXi server in the network switch. After several performance tests the customer has not detected any performance improvement.
What must be done so that the throughput will be increased?
A. Set the MTU size of the ESXi server to 9016.
B. Set the MTU size in the network switch to 12000.
C. Set the MTU size of ESXi server and network switch to 4500.
D. Set the MTU size of the FSN to 9000.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has a VNX with twenty 300 GB SAS drives. Which mechanism does AVM use to optimize file system performance with these twenty disk drives?
A. Striping
B. Slicing
C. Meta volume
D. Disk volume

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
What should you consider when planning to create a file system of maximum size?
A. The file system may be too large to replicate/back up efficiently.
B. The file system must be placed on AVM created volumes.
C. The file system must be placed on manually created volumes.
D. The file system may be too large for NFS exports.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Which file system function will be activated if you select thin provisioning?
A. Deduplication
B. Auto Extend
C. Compression
D. Slice Volume

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has a VNX with twenty 300 GB SAS drives. Which mechanism does AVM use to increase capacity with auto expansion?
A. Meta volume
B. Striping
C. Slicing
D. Disk volume

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
An administrator has created a FAST clone of VM and then tries to create a copy of the FAST clone, but it fails.
Why did the operation fail?
A. A FAST clone cannot be a source for FAST clones.
B. The source FAST clone has an active snapshot session.
C. The minimum 25% free space of source VM capacity was not free on the file system.
D. The VM was in suspended mode.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit.

The VMDK file in the data store “Test1234” was compressed with the EMC VSI plug-in. What happens to subsequent VMDK files added after the compression is finished?
A. Additional files will be compressed automatically.
B. Additional files will be compressed when accessed.
C. Additional files will not be compressed.
D. Compression is possible only once per VM.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Before creating a CIFS server that will participate in a Windows domain, what best practice does EMC recommend?
A. Configuring NTP synchronization with a KDC
B. Creating placeholder entries in Active Directory
C. Populating DNS with the new host entries
D. Performing a health check on the VNX

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
What Windows component runs a supported time service for a CIFS server by default?
A. Domain controller
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What must be available before creating a CIFS server?
A. Windows domain controller
B. WINS

C. LDAP
D. VNX CIFS service
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
A VNX administrator is creating a CIFS file server. When the CIFS share “HH-Office” was created, none of the available CIFS servers were selected. What type of share will be created?
A. Global share
B. Local share
C. Domain share
D. Hidden share

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
Which is a component of file system filtering?
A. ACL
B. GPO
C. AD
D. NTP
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
A customer wants to use the Home Directory feature. As a prerequisite what must be functioning properly?
A. CAVA
B. Usermapper
C. CEPA

D. VEE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 70
A customer wants to restrict the “training” share to PowerPoint files. What must be done to activate the filter settings?
A. Place the filter file in the \.filefilter directory on root share (C$) of the Data Mover.
B. Place the filter file in the \.filefilter directory on the “training” share of the Data Mover.
C. Re-establish domain membership for the Data Mover.
D. Place the name of the target user group for the share into the filter file.

Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 27
After the Celerra file system has been exported to NFS, what should be done on the hosts to access the file system?
A. Mount the file system
B. Update DNS records
C. Set export to automount
D. Format the file system Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which failover policy will allow a Primary Data Mover to shut down without causing a Standby to take over?
A. Passive
B. Manual
C. Offline
D. Auto

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
What is the minimum number of Data Movers needed to configure Data Mover for high availability?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
Which statement describes the Fibre Channel connections of an NS unified model blade to back-end storage?
A. The blade is SAN attached via switched fabric to CLARiiON storage
B. The blade is directly connected to Symmetrix back-end storage
C. The blade is directly connected to CLARiiON back-end storage
D. The blade is SAN attached via switched fabric to Symmetrix storage

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
A storage administrator is considering implementing an iSCSI solution. What is one reason to justify the decision?
A. A native iSCSI solution will use existing SAN Fibre Channel switches
B. An iSCSI solution will provide higher performance compared to a regular SAN solution
C. iSCSI is more secure than a SAN solution
D. iSCSI offers a solution for consolidating servers using the existing network infrastructure Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
You are asked to create the maximum number of writeable checkpoints from a production file system per day using equivalent intervals. How many checkpoints can be created?
A. 16, one every 90 minutes
B. 24, one every 60 minutes
C. 48, one every 30 minutes
D. 96, one every 15 minutes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
How can you disable Automatic SavVol Extension?
A. By setting HWM to 100
B. By setting LWM to 0
C. By setting LWM to 100
D. By setting HWM to 0

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
What is the default size limitation for a SavVol?
A. 20% of the total disk space available
B. 20 GB of the production file system disk usage
C. 10% of the total disk space available
D. 20% of the production file system disk usage Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
Which command can be used to start the virus checker on the Data Mover?
A. server_setup <movername> -Protocol viruschk option start
B. server_viruscheck <movername> -Protocol viruschk option start
C. server_cifs <movername> -Protocol viruschk option start
D. server_manager <movername> -Protocol viruschk option start

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal performance and protection. Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A. Celerra Monitor
B. CAVA Sizing Tool
C. NAS Support Matrix
D. CAVA Calculator Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
To enable each Data Mover to utilize CAVA, where would the settings and options be defined?
A. viruschecker.conf on the physical Data Mover
B. viruschecker.conf on the Virtual Data Mover
C. Data Mover param file
D. Virus checker client

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
In what order during a write operation are the files processed when CAVA is enabled?
A. Client > Celerra Cache > Virus Checking Server > Celerra Cache > Storage
B. Client > Virus Checking Server > Client > Celerra Cache > Storage
C. Client > Celerra Cache > Storage > Virus Checking Server > Storage
D. Client > Virus Checking Server > Celerra Cache > Storage Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
During a Celerra Replicator V2 implementation, the site administrator decides to change the IP addresses of the Data Mover interconnect. What should be done to the running replication session to change the interfaces?
A. Delete the session and add the new addresses to the Data Mover interconnect, and delete the old addresses.
B. Stop the session and create IP address aliases for the interconnect ports.
C. Stop the session, add the new addresses to the Data Mover interconnect, and delete the old addresses.
D. Delete the session and create IP address aliases for the interconnect ports.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
The production file system in New York and the DR site in London are running Celerra Replicator. While the New York site is scheduled to be down for a 3-hour maintenance window, the production file system will be accessed from the London site. When the maintenance window is complete, the administrator will initiate the reversal process.
Which statement correctly describes the replication reversal process?
A. Makes the file system at the London site read/write and performs synchronization
B. Changes the file system at the New York site to read/write and begins synchronization
C. Changes the file system at the London site to read-only and stops the transmission of replicated data
D. Redirects a replication session to perform synchronization while the file system at the New York site is still available Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
What are the SavVol configuration settings when implementing Replicator V2?
A. If PFS > 20 GB, then SavVol = 20 GB
B. If PFS < 20 GB then SavVol = 20 GB
C. If PFS >= 64 MB, then SavVol >= 64 MB
D. If PFS <= 64 MB, then SavVol >= PFS size Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
How many interconnects can be created between two Celerras, each with one active Data Mover, and four configured network interfaces on each active Data Mover?
A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. One Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
What is the maximum depth for a cascaded replication?
A. One level
B. Two levels
C. Three levels
D. Four levels

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
What is TCP Window Size?
A. Amount of data to be sent across the network before an acknowledgement is required
B. Amount of data to be sent across the network per minute
C. Amount of data to be sent across the network per replication job
D. Amount of data to be sent across the network for all replication jobs Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
For a “One to many Replication”, how many destinations can be replicated simultaneously from the same source?
A. Two
B. Sixteen
C. Four
D. Eight

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
For a “One-to-Many” replication, how are the replication sessions configured?
A. All sessions are independent and configured individually.
B. All configured sessions are dependent on one another.
C. Sessions must be configured in groups.
D. Sessions are optionally configured in groups. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
In a “One-to-Many” configuration, a source file system is to be replicated simultaneously to three different destinations. How many checkpoints are created on the source side?
A. Six
B. Three
C. One
D. Two

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
The Celerra backup-to-disk (B2D) feature offers what benefit compared to tape-based backup operations?
A. Scalability to larger numbers of clients
B. Archival backups to comply with regulatory policies
C. Quick restores of individual files
D. Utilizes metadata to the backup server to limit network traffic Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
What is a requirement for a successful volume-based backup deployment?
A. Backup source must be mounted in a read-only state.
B. DDAR parameter must be enabled for the saveset.
C. File and directory filtering must be set prior to backup.
D. EMC_OFFLINE_DATA variable must be set to Y.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
The EMC_OFFLINE_DATA environment variable was set to yes on backup software for the NDMP backup of a Celerra CIFS server dataset. What will be the backup behavior?
A. Migrated files will be backed up.
B. Files will be moved to a second tier prior to backup
C. Only offline file attributes will be backed up.
D. Migrated files will be excluded from the backup.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which backup solution allows for data transfer from one NAS device to a tape attached to another NAS device?
A. SAN MPFS
B. NDMP two-way
C. NDMP three-way
D. LAN copy

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Which NAS backup methodology allows the following transfers?
Data directly to the storage device through a dedicated IP network Metadata and flow control to and from the backup server over the public network
A. NFS over LAN copy
B. MPFS
C. CIFS over LAN copy
D. NDMP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Which NAS backup methodology allows the transfer of metadata to the backup server through IP and data access from the Data Mover’s back-end storage array through the SAN?
A. MPFS
B. LAN copy
C. NDMP
D. LAN-free backup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
Which backup methodology is responsible for the transfer of both data and metadata to the backup server through the IP network?
A. LAN copy
B. NDMP two-way
C. MPFS
D. NDMP three-way
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What component of an NDMP backup deployment provides access to the file systems to be backed up?
A. DMA server
B. NDMP server
C. Secondary storage
D. Backup client
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
A new DNS server has been added to the current domain. How do you add the new server to the Data Mover in Unisphere?
A. On the NIS tab of the Network Settings, add the new server IP address to the NIS domain.
B. On the NIS tab of the Network Settings, create a new domain with the server IP address.
C. On the DNS tab of the Network Settings, add the new server’s IP address to the current DNS domain.
D. On the DNS tab of the Network Settings, create a new domain with the server’s IP address.
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco 640-816 Exam Questions, Provide Latest Cisco 640-816 Exam Download Online http://www.adtest2.org/cisco-640-816-exam-questions-provide-latest-cisco-640-816-exam-download-online.html http://www.adtest2.org/cisco-640-816-exam-questions-provide-latest-cisco-640-816-exam-download-online.html#comments Fri, 02 Sep 2016 08:07:01 +0000 http://www.adtest2.org/?p=210 Continue reading →]]> Flydumps Cisco 640-816 exam sample questions are 100% verified realistic Cisco 640-816 exam questions and answers. Flydumps Cisco 640-816 practice exam is constantly updated to reflect the current Cisco 640-816 exam information. Are you still worrying about the high difficulty to pass Cisco 640-816 exam? Are you still sleeplessly endeavoring to review the book in order to pass CWNP PW0-104 exam? Do you want to pass Cisco 640-816 faster? Be quick to select our Flydumps. Flydumps Cisco 640-816 exam sample questions contain the complete unrestricted Q&As. So with it you can easily pass the Cisco 640-816 exam. Flydumps Cisco 640-816 practice exam is a good guidance.

QUESTION 151
Your ISP assigned you a full class B address space. From this, you need at least 300 sub-networks that can support at least 50 hosts each. Which of the subnet masks below are capable of satisfying your needs? (Select two).
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 152
A Certkiller PC has the IP address 172.16.209.10 /22. What is the subnet of this address?
A. 172.16.42.0
B. 172.16.107.0
C. 172.16.208.0
D. 172.16.252.0
E. 172.16.254.0
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
You’ve been assigned the CIDR (classless inter domain routing) block of 115.64.4.0/22 from your ISP. Which of the IP addresses below can you use for a host? (Select all valid answers)
A. 115.64.8.32
B. 115.64.7.64
C. 115.64.6.255
D. 115.64.3.255
E. 115.64.5.128
F. 115.64.12.128
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 154
A Certkiller remote office branch is set up as shown in the diagram below: All of the hosts in the above exhibit are connected with each other via the single Catalyst switch. Which of the following statements correctly describe the addressing scheme of this network? (Select three)

A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1.
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 155
On the topic of VLSM, which one of the following statements best describes the concept of the route aggregation?
A. Deleting unusable addresses through the creation of many subnets.
B. Combining routes to multiple networks into one supernet.
C. Reclaiming unused space by means of changing the subnet size.
D. Calculating the available host addresses in the AS.
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 156
In the Certkiller network shown below, what is the most efficient summarization that CK1 can use to advertise its networks to CK2 ?

A. 172.1.4.0/24172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
B. 172.1.0.0/22
C. 172.1.4.0/25172.1.4.128/25172.1.5.0/24172.1.6.0/24172.1.7.0/24
D. 172.1.0.0/21
E. 172.1.4.0/22
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 157
Part of the Certkiller network is shown below:

The five Ethernet networks connected to router Certkiller 1 in the graphic have been summarized for router Certkiller 2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Based on this information, which of the following packet destination addresses will Certkiller 2 forward to Certkiller 1, according to this summary? (Choose two.)
A. 192.1.1.144
B. 192.1.159.2
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.160.11
F. 192.1.143.145
G. 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 158
Refer to the following exhibit: In this network segment, the IP subnets connected to router Certkiller 2 have been summarized as a 192.18.176.0/21 route and sent to Certkiller 1. Based on this information, which two packet destination addresses will Certkiller 1 forward to Certkiller 2? (Choose two)

A. 192.18.183.255
B. 192.18.159.2
C. 192.18.194.160
D. 192.18.179.4
E. 192.18.183.41
F. 192.18.184.45
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 159
Certkiller is migrating to an IPv6 addressing scheme. Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses below that could be used in this network. (Choose four)
A. ::192:168:0:1
B. 2002:c0a8:101::42

C. 2000::
D. ::
E. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 160
The Certkiller network topology exhibit is shown below: Configuration exhibit:
The Certkiller network administrator is adding two new hosts to switch Certkiller A. Of the following choices, which values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
A. Host Certkiller B IP Address: 192.168.1.128
B. Host Certkiller A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
C. Host Certkiller A IP Address: 192.168.1.64
D. Host Certkiller B IP Address: 192.168.1.190
E. Host Certkiller A IP address: 192.168.1.79
F. Host Certkiller B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 161
The new Certkiller location is displayed below:

A new PC is installed on the LAN of the Certkiller 1 router as shown above. This PC is unable to connect to
the Certkiller A server located on the Ethernet 1 network.
What is the cause of this?

A. IP address of the Ethernet 0 router interface is wrong
B. Server is using an invalid IP address
C. Workstation default gateway is set incorrectly
D. Workstation subnet mask is incorrect
E. Workstation IP address is invalid
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 162
A new LAN is being implemented on the Certkiller 1 network as shown below:

The local host CK1 can’t access any of the resources on the other networks. The configuration of CK1 is as follows: host address: …..192.168.166.45 subnet mask: ……255.255.255.240 default gateway: ..192.168.166.32 What is the underlying cause of this problem?
A. The default gateway is a network address.
B. The default gateway is on a different subnet address as the host.
C. The IP address of the host is on a different subnet.
D. The host subnet mask is incompatible to the subnet mask of the attached router interface.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 163
While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information: Local PC IP address: 190.0.3.35/24 Default Gateway: 190.0.3.1 Remote Server: 190.0.5.250/24 You then conduct the following tests from the local PC: Ping 127.0.0.1 – Unsuccessful Ping 190.0.3.35 – Successful Ping 190.0.3.1 – Unsuccessful Ping 190.0.5.250 – Unsuccessful What is the underlying cause of this problem?
A. TCP/IP not correctly installed
B. Local physical layer problem
C. NIC not functioning
D. Remote physical layer problem
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 164
A Certkiller network is shown below:

The network shown in the exhibit above is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Select two)
A. Configure the gateway on Certkiller A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Certkiller B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Certkiller A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Certkiller B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 165
Part of the Certkiller LAN is shown below:

Based on the diagram shown above, which of the following IP addressing schemes could be used for this Certkiller LAN segment?
A. Host Certkiller A – 192.168.10.22/24; Host Certkiller B – 192.168.11.23/24; Host Certkiller C -192.168.10.23/24
B. Host Certkiller A – 192.168.10.22/24; Host Certkiller B – 192.168.10.23/24; Host Certkiller C -192.168.11.23/24
C. Host Certkiller A – 192.168.10.22/24; Host Certkiller B – 192.168.10.23/24; Host Certkiller C -192.168.10.24/24
D. Host Certkiller A – 192.168.11.22/24; Host Certkiller B – 192.168.11.23/24; Host Certkiller C -192.168.10.24/24
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 166
A portion of the Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit:

You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. The Certkiller network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two)
A. A dynamic routing protocol on Certkiller 1 to advertise summarized routes to Certkiller 2
B. A dynamic routing protocol Certkiller 2 to advertise summarized routes a Certkiller 1
C. A static route on Certkiller 2 to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to Certkiller 1
D. A dynamic routing protocol on Certkiller 2 to advertise all routes a Certkiller 1
E. A dynamic routing protocol on Certkiller 1 to advertise all routes to Certkiller 2
F. A static, default route on Certkiller 1 that directs traffic to Certkiller 2
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 167
Four different Certkiller routers are connected together as shown below: Based on the information shown above, how will router Certkiller 1 choose a path to the 10.1.2.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three)

A. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, the equal coast paths Certkiller 1- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 4 and Certkiller 1- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4 will be installed in the routing table by default
B. If EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path Certkiller 1- Certkiller 4 will be installed in the routing table by default
C. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path Certkiller 1- Certkiller 4 will be installed in the routing table by default
D. If EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the network, the EIGRP paths will be installed in the routing table
E. If EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the network, the OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table
F. If EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths Certkiller 1- Certkiller 2- Certkiller 4 and Certkiller 1- Certkiller 3- Certkiller 4will be installed in the routing table by default

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 168
When designing OSPF networks; what is the purpose of using a hierarchical design? (Select all choices that apply)
A. To reduce the complexity of router configuration
B. To speed up convergence
C. To confine network instability to single areas of the network
D. To reduce routing overhead
E. To lower costs by replacing routers
F. To decrease latency

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 169
You are a network administrator and you need to implement a routing protocol on your network that provides:
*
Scalability

*
VLSM support

*
Minimal overhead

*
Support for connecting networks using routers of multiple vendors Which of the following routing protocol would best serve your needs?

A.
VTP

B.
RIP version 1

C.
EIGRP

D.
OSPF

E.
IGRP

F.
CDP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 170
You need to configure a single router into load balancing traffic across 4 unequal cost paths. Which routing protocols can satisfy this requirement? (Select two)
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
F. IS-IS
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 171
You need to choose a routing protocol for a new Certkiller network. This network will be running IP, IPX, and Appletalk, and you wish to utilize only one routing protocol. Which one would be the best choice?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v2
D. IGRP
E. RIP v1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 172
Which of the routing protocols shown below support both VLSM and route summarization? (Select three)
A. IGRP
B. EIGRP
C. RIP v1
D. RIP v2
E. OSPF
F. VTP
G. CDP
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 173
Which of the following routing protocols support the use of VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking)? (Select three)
A. RIPv1
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IGRP
E. RIPv2
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 174
Which of the following routing protocols do NOT support VLSM (variable length subnet masking)? (Choose all that apply).
A. RIPv1
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IS-IS
F. RIPv2
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 175
You need to implement the use of a routing protocol that meets the following requirements:
1.
Converges quickly
2.
Supports VLSM, CIDR, IP, and IPX.
3.
Uses minimal bandwidth for routing updates.
Which one of the following routing protocols would be the best choice?

A. RIPv1

B. RIPv2

C. IGRP

D. OSPF

E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 176
See the Certkiller WAN diagram below:

Certkiller has four offices, each with its own network, as shown in the graphic. Three of the networks have approximately 50 hosts each, and one network has 10 hosts. The multi-vendor routers are connected by serial links that use separate subnetwork numbers. The Certkiller network has leased one Class C address to be used for all networks and serial links, and they do not wish to replace any of their existing routers. Which routing protocol would be most appropriate for this scenario?
A. TCP/IP
B. RIP version 1
C. RIP version 2
D. IGRP
E. EIGRP
F. All of the above are acceptable
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 177
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the diagram below:

Based on the information shown above, which routing protocols can be used within the Certkiller network show in the diagram? (Choose three).
A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 178
The Certkiller Network consists of the following 5 IP networks: NETWORK 1: 192.168.10.0/26 NETWORK 2: 192.168.10.64/27 NETWORK 3: 192.168.10.96/27 NETWORK 4: 192.168.10.128/30 NETWORK 5: 192.168.10.132/30 Which of the following routing protocols will support this IP addressing scheme? (Choose all that apply).
A. RIP version 1
B. RIP version 2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
F. BGP
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 179
The Certkiller network is shown in the following exhibit: Which routing protocols can be used within the Certkiller network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)

A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 180
Certkiller .com is merging with several local businesses that use routers from multiple vendors. Which routing protocol would work best to connect Certkiller .com with the enterprise networks it has acquired by providing scalability and VLSM support while minimizing network overhead?
A. IGRP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. RIP v2
E. RIP v1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 181
The Certkiller WAN is displayed in the diagram below:

Which dynamic routing protocol should be recommended for the Certkiller network shown in the graphic above? (Choose three)
A. OSPF
B. RIP version 1
C. RIP version 2
D. IGRP
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: ACE

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